NEET-UG 2020 questions Paper for medical


01. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is

hanging from a fixed support. The length of the

wire changes to L1

 when mass M is suspended

from its free end. The expression for Young’s

modulus is :

(1)

Mg(L L) 1

AL

(2)

1

MgL

AL

(3)

1

MgL

A(L L) 

(4)

MgL1

AL


Ans. (3)


02. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure

of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C.

Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)

(1) 0.2 kg/m3 (2) 0.1 kg/m3

(3) 0.02 kg/m3 (4) 0.5 kg/m3

Ans. (1)


03. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls

on a non-re fle cti ng surface at normal

incidence having surface area 20 cm2. The

energy rece ived by the surface during time

span of 1 minute is :

(1) 12 × 103 J (2) 24 × 103 J

(3) 48 × 103 J (4) 10× 103 J

Ans. (2)


04. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to

the ends of a massless string. The string passes

over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure).

The acceleration of the system is in terms of

acceleration due to gravity (g) is :


05. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular

di ameter d and number density n can be

expressed as :

(1) 2

1

2n d

(2) 2 2

1

2n d

(3) 2 2 2

1

2n d 

(4)

1

2n d

Ans. (1)


06. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a

velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It

hits the ground after some time with a velocity

of 80 m/s. The he i ght of the towe r is :

(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 340 m (2) 320 m (3) 300 m (4) 360 m

Ans. (3)


07. The color code of a resistance is given below :

Yellow Violet Brown Gold

The value s of re sistance and tolerance ,

respectively are :

(1) 47 k, 10% (2) 4.7k, 5%

(3) 470 k, 5% (4) 470 k, 5%

Ans. (3)


08. When a uranium isotope 235

92 U is bombarded

with a ne utron, i t ge ne rate s 89

36Kr, thre e

neutrons and :

(1) 91

40Zr (2) 101

36 Kr (3) 103

36 Kr (4) 144

56 Ba

Ans. (4)


09. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a

charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly.

What is the magnitude of electric field at a

point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere ?

9 2 2

0

1

9 10 Nm /C

4

 

      

(1) 1.28 × 105 N/C (2) 1.28 × 106 N/C

(3) 1.28 × 107 N/C (4) 1.28 × 104 N/C

Ans. (1)



 

 


10. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to :

2A

(1)  

µ (2) µA A

(3)  

2 A

(4)  

2

Ans. (2)


11. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is :

(1) adiabatic (2) isochoric

(3) isobaric (4) isothermal

Ans. (1)


12. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 A m–1. The permeability of the material of the rod is :

(µ0 = 4 × 10–7 T mA–1)

(1) 8.0 × 10–5 T  m A–1

(2) 2.4 × 10–5 T  m A–1

(3) 2.4 × 10–7 T  m A–1

(4) 2.4 × 10–4 T  m A–1

Ans. (4)


13. The energy equivalent of 0.5 of a substance is :

(1) 4.5 × 1013 J (2) 1.5 × 1013 J

(3) 0.5 × 1013 J (4) 4.5 × 1010 J

Ans. (1)


14. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly :

(1) 2.05 A (2) 2.5 A (3) 25.1 A (4) 1.7 A

Ans. (2)


15. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : c (3) 1 : c2 (4) c : 1

Ans. (1)


16. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.

The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :

(1) 50 cm (2) 67 cm (3) 80 cm (4) 33 cm

(2)


17. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1of the resistance wire is :

(1) 1.0 × 10–1 m (2) 1.5 × 10–1 m

(3) 1.5 × 10–2 m (4) 1.0 × 10–2 m

Ans. (1)


18. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes :

(1) half (2) four times

(3) one-fourth (4) double

Ans. (2)


19. A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 ×10–4 m s–1 in an electric field of 3 × 10–10Vm–1 has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of :

(1) 2.5 × 106 (2) 2.5 × 10–6

(3) 2.25 × 10–15 (4) 2.25 × 1015

Ans. (1)


20. Dimensions of stress are :

(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [ML0T–2]

(3) [ML–1T–2] (4) [MLT–2]

Ans. (3)


21. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid ?

(1) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)

(2) Deuteron atom

(3) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)

(4) Hydrogen atom

Ans. (3)


22. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current

 and voltage is . If instead C is removed from

3

the circuit, the phase difference is again 

3

between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :

(1) 0.5 (2) 1.0 (3) –1.0 (4) zero

Ans. (2)


23. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :

(1) 5.0 g (2) 10.0 g (3) 20.0 g (4) 2.5 g

Ans. (2)

 

25. The soli ds whi ch have the ne gati ve

temperature coefficient of resistance are:

(1) insulators only

(2) semiconductors only

(3) insulators and semiconductors

(4) metals

Ans. (3)


26. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with

air as medium is 6F. With the introduction of

a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes

30F. The permittivity of the medium is:

 

–12 2 –1 –2    0 8.85 10 C N m

(1) 1.77×10–12 C2 N–1 m–2

(2) 0.44×10–10 C2N–1 m–2

(3) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2

(4) 0.44×10–13 C2 N–1 m–2

Ans. (2)


27. The energy required to break one bond in DNA

is 10–20 J. This value of eV is nearly:

(1) 0.6 (2) 0.06 (3) 0.006 (4) 6

Ans. (2)


28. The i ncrease i n the wi dth of the depleti on

region in a p-n junction diode is due to:

(1) reverse bias only

(2) both forward bias and reverse bias

(3) increases in forward current

(4) forward bias only

Ans. (1)


29. The quantities of heat required to rai se the

temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii

r1

 and r2

 (r1 = 1.5 r2

) through 1 K are in the

ratio

(1)

9

4

(2)

3

2

(3)

5

3

(4)

27

8

Ans. (4)


30. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:

B

A

Y

 

A B Y

0 0 0

0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 1

(2)

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 0

(3)

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 0

(4)

A B Y

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

Ans. (4)


31. For transistor action, which of the following

statements is correct?

(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should

have same size.

(2) Both emitter junction as well as the collector

junction are forward biased.

(3) The base region must be very thin and lightly

doped.

(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should

have same doping concentrations.

Ans. (3)


32. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same

material are slightly out of tune and produce

beats of frequency 6Hz. When tension in B is

slightly decreases, the beat frequency increases

to 7 Hz. If the fre que ncy of A i s

530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:

(1) 524 Hz (2) 536 Hz (3) 537 Hz (4) 523 Hz

Ans. (1)


33. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of

16×10–19 Cm. The electric potential due to the

dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the

centre of the dipole, situated on a line making

an angle of 60º with the dipole axis is:

9 2 2

0

1

9 10 N m /C

4

     

  

(1) 200 V (2) 400 V (3) zero (4) 50V

Ans. (1)


34. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.

What is the gravitational force on it, at a height

equal to half the radius of the earth?

(1) 32 N (2) 30 N (3) 24 N (4) 48 N

Ans. (1)

 

35. Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) for copper?

(1) (2)

T T

(3) (4)

T T

Ans. (2)

36. In a certain region of space with volume

0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5V throughtout. The magnitude of electric field in this is:

(1) 0.5 N/C(2) 1 N/C (3) 5 N/C (4) zero

Ans. (4)

37. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is: (kB is Botzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)

(1) k TB (2) k TB (3) K TB (4) k TB

Ans. (1)

38. Find the torque about the origin when a force of

3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is 2km.ˆ

(1) 6ˆjNm (2) –6iNmˆ (3) 6kNmˆ (4) 6ˆiNm

Ans. (2)

39. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive meterial. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?

(1) four times (2) one-fourth

(3) zero (4) doubled

Ans. (3)

40. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is:

  0 4 10–7 TmA–1

(1) 3.14 ×10–4 T (2) 6.28 × 10–5 T

(3) 3.14 ×10–5 T (4) 6.28 ×10–4 T

Ans. (4)

41. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be.

(1) 30º < ib < 45º (2) 45º < ib < 90º

(3) ib = 90º (4) 0º < ib < 30º

(2)

42. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 ×10–2 nm, the potential difference is:

(1) 102 V (2) 103 V (3) 104 V (4) 10 V

Ans. (3)


43. Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?

(1) 9.98 m (2) 9.980 m

(3) 9.9 m (4) 9.9801

Ans. (1)


44. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is:

(1) 0.25 mm (2) 0.5 mm

(3) 1.0 mm (4) 0.01 mm

Ans. (2)


45. The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is:

3

(1) rad (2) rad (3) zero (4)  rad

2 2

Ans. (4)


46. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector thuringiensis

(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule

(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase tumefaciens

(d) Salmonella (iv)Cry proteins typhimurium

Select the correct option from the following :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Ans. (1)


47. Match the following :

(a) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin catalytic activity

(b) Possess peptide (ii) Malonate bonds

(c) Cell wall material (iii) Chitin in fungi

(d) Secondary (iv)Collagen metabolite

Choose the correct option from the following :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Ans. (4)


48. The plant parts which consist of two generations :

(a) Pollen grains inside the anther

(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes

(c) Seed inside the fruit

(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a) only

Ans. (3)


49. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of :

(1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound

(2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound

(3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound

(4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound

Ans. (1)


50. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.

(2) There is no relationship between Gross primary producitivity and Net primary producitivity.

(3) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.

(4) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.

Ans. (1)


51. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are : (1) Nitrate alone

(2) Ammonia and oxygen

(3) Ammonia and hydrogen

(4) Ammonia alone

Ans. (3)


52. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.

(2) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.

(3) Due to deposition of tannis, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.

(4) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.

Ans. (2)


53. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to :

(1) Fungal diseases (2) Plant nematodes

(3) Insect predators (4) Insect pests

Ans. (4)


54. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae ?

(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria

(2) Anabaena and Volvox

(3) Chloralla and Spirulina

(4) Laminaria and Sargassum

Ans. (3)


55. Strobili or cones are found in :

(1) Pteris (2) Marchantia

(3) Equisetum (4) Salvinia

Ans. (3)


56. Name the enzyme that faciliates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase

(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase

Ans. (1)


57. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin.

(2) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

(3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

(4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2.

Ans. (2)


58. Identify the correct statement wityh regard to G1 phase (GP 1) of interphase.

(1) Reorganisation of a cell components takes place.

(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.

(3) Nuclear Division takes place.

(4) DNA synthesis of replication takes place.

Ans. (2)


59. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect ?

(1) These are involved in ingestion of food particles.

(2) They lie free in the cytoplasm.

(3) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.

(4) They are not bound by any membrane.

Ans. (1)


60. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria

(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium

(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella

(d) Malaria (iv)Haemophilus

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Ans. (1)


61. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed :

(1) At the time of copulation

(2) After zygote formation

(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum

(4) Prior to ovulation

Ans. (3)


62. By which method was a new ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams ?

(1) Mutational breeding

(2) Cross breeding

(3) Inbreeding

(4) Out crossing

Ans. (2)


63. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is :

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Zero

Ans. (1)

64. Choose the correct pair from the following :

(1) Polymerases — Break the DNA into fragments

(2) Nucleases — Separate the two strands of DNA

(3) Exonucleases — Make cuts at

specific positions within DNA

(4) Ligases — Joine the two DNA

molecules

Ans. (4)


65. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is :

(1) Sporozoites (2) Female gametocytes

(3) Male gametocytes (4) Trophozoites

Ans. (1)


66. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population ?

(1) Natality (2) Mortality

(3) Species interaction(4) Sex ratio

Ans. (3)


67. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

(a) Contraction of diaphragm.

(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles.

(c) Pulmonary volume decreases.

(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases.

(1) (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) only (d) (4) (a) and (b)

(4)


68. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about :

(1) 20 million (2) 50 million

(3) 7 million (4) 1.5 million

Ans. (3)


69. The QRS complex in a strandard ECG represents:

(1) Depolarisation of auricles

(2) Depolarisation of ventricles

(3) Repolarisation of ventricles

(4) Repolarisation of auricles

Ans. (2)


70. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) The proinsulin has extra peptide called Ceptide.

(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.

(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E-Coli.

(4) In man insulin is synthesised  as a proinsulin

Ans. (2)


71. The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features :

(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath.

(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue.

(c) Vascular budles conjoint and closed.

(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.

Identify the category of plant and its part :

(1) Monocotyledonous root

(2) Dicotyledonous stem

(3) Dicotyledonous root

(4) Monocotyledonous stem

Ans. (4)


72. Select the correct statement.

(1) Glucagon is associated wioth hypoglycemia.

(2) Insulin acts on pacnreatic cells and adipocytes.

(3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia

(4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. 

Ans. (4)


73. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of :

(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances

(2) Release of Green House gases

(3) Disposal of e-wastes

(4) Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another

Ans. (1)

 

74. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(a) 6 – 15 pairs of gill (i) Trygon slits

(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes caudal fin

(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes

(d) Poison sting (iv)Osteichthyes

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Ans. (4)


75. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

(1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.

(2) They are useful in genetic engineering.

(3) Stricky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.

(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the lengh of DNA sequence.

Ans. (3)


76. Match the following with respect to meiosis :

(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization

(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata

(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over

(d) Diakinesis (iv)Synapsis

Select the correct option from the following :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Ans. (1)


77. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in : (1) ducts of salivary glands

(2) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

(3) eustachian tube

(4) lining of intestine

Ans. (2)


78. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem,thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop :

(1) Gibberellin (2) Ethyelne

(3) Abscisic acid (4) Cytokinin

(1)


79. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy

(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence deaminase deficiency

(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection

(d) PCR (iv)Bacillus thuringiensis

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Ans. (4)


80. The ovary is half inferior in :

(1) Mustard (2) Sunflower

(3) Plum (4) Brinjal

Ans. (3)


81. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals ?

(1) Collagen (2) Lectin

(3) Insulin (4) Haemoglobin

Ans. (1)


82. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately :

(1) 2.5 meters (2) 2.2 meters

(3) 2.7 meters (4) 2.0 meters

Ans. (2)


83. The first phase of translation is :

(1) Recognition of DNA molecule

(2) Aminoacylation of tRNA

(3) Recognition of an anti-codon

(4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome

Ans. (2)


84. Which of the following hormone levels with cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle ?

(1) High concentration of Progesterone

(2) Low concentration of LH

(3) Low concentration of FSH

(4) High concentration of Estrong

Ans. (4)


85. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are example of :

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Industrial melanism

(3) Natural selection

(4) Adaptive radiation

Ans. (1)


86. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.

(1) A person will have only two of the three alleles.

(2) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.

(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.

(4) The gene (I) has three alleles.

Ans. (2)


87. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

(3) Cancer, AIDs, Syphilis

(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

Ans. (4)


88. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Eosinophils (a) Immune response

(b) Basophils (b) Phagocytosis

(c) Neutrophils (c) Release

histaminase, destructive enzymes

(d) Lymphocytes (d) Release granules

containing histamine

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Ans. (4)


89. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow

(b) Secondary trophic (ii) Vulture level

(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit

(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass Select the correct option :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (i)

Ans. (4)


90. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from :

(1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I

(2) PS-I to NADP+

(3) PS-I to ATP synthase

(4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex

(4)


91. Embryological support for evolutioon was disapproved by : (1) Alfred Wallace

(2) Charles Darwin

(3) Oparin

(4) Karl Ernst von Baer

Ans. (4)


92. Bilaterally symmetrical can acoelomate animals are exemplified by :

(1) Platyhelminthes

(2) Aschelminthes

(3) Annelida

(4) Ctenophora

Ans. (1)


93. Which of the followoing would help in prevention of diurests ?

(1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone

(2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

(3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells

(4) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH

Ans. (1)


94. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column- I Column - II

(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A butylicum

(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid polysporum

(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid

Purpureus

(d) Aspergillus niger (iv)Blood cholesterol

lowering agent

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Ans. (1)


95. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :

(1) G1 phase (2) S phase

(3) G2 phase (4) M phase

Ans. (1)


96. In which of the following technique, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive ? (1) GIFT and ZIFT

(2) ICSI and ZIFT

(3) GIFT and ICSI

(4) ZIFT and IUT

Ans. (4)

 

 


97. Which fot he following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata ?

(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.

(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only

(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.

(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and

Cephalochordata.

(1) (c) and (a) (2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b) and (c) (4) (d) and (c)

Ans. (3)


98. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :

(1) Inflammation of cornea due to high does of UV-B radiation

(2) High reflection of light from snow

(3) Damage to retine caused by infra-red rays

(4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature

Ans. (1)


99. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column- I Column - II

(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus

(d) Pancrease (iv)Addision’s disease

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Ans. (2)


100. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Adenine pairs with thymine throught one H-bond.

(2) Adenine parirs with thymine throught three H-bonds.

(3) Adenine does not pair with thymine.

(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two Hbonds.

Ans. (4)


101. Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants : (a) Iron (i)  Photolysis of water

(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination

(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll      biosynthesis (d) Manganese(iv) IAA biosynthesis Select the correct option :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2)


102. Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy ?

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Phenolic acid

(3) Para-ascorbic acid

(4) Gibberellic acid

Ans. (4)


103. From his experiments, S.L. miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :

(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C (2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

(3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C Ans. (4)


104. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by :

(1) Sutton (2) Boveri

(3) Morgan (4) Mendel

Ans. (3)

105. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at :

(1) Micropyle (2) Nucellus

(3) Chalaza (4) Hilum

Ans. (4)


106. Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

(1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.

(2) Ileum is a hightly coiled part.

(3) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum

(4) Ileum opens into small intestine.

Ans. (2)


107. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during :

(1) Zygoten (2) Diplotene

(3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene

Ans. (2)


108. Floridean starch has structure similar to :

(1) Amylopectin and glycogen

(2) Mannitol and algin

(3) Laminarin and cellulose

(4) Starch andc cellulose

Ans. (1)


109. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is :

(1) 5’ - GGAACC - 3’

3’ - CCTTGG - 5’

(2) 5’ - CTTAAG = 3’

3’ - GAATTC - 5’

(3) 5’ - GGATCC - 3’

3’ - CCTAGG - 5’

(4) 5’ - GAATTC - 3’

3’ - CTTAAG - 5’

Ans. (4)

 

110. Select the correct match. (2) Active immunity is quick and gives full (1) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal response.

dominant trait (3) Foetus recives some antibodies from mother, (2) Sickle cell amaemin - Autosomal is is an example for passive immunity.

receissive trait, (4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. chormosome-11

It is called “Active immunity”/

(3) Thalassemia - X linked

Ans. (2)

(4) Haemophilia - Y linked

116. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination

Ans. (2) takes place by :

111. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond

(1) water currents only and peptide bond, respectively in their

structure : (2) wind and water

(1) Glycerol, trypsin (3) insects and water

(2) Cellulose, lecithin (4) insects or wind

(3) Inulin, insulin

(4) Chitin, cholesterol

Ans. (3)

Ans. (4)

Ans. (2)

Ans. (1) (1) Growth response

(2) Defence action

(3) Effect on reproduction

(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly

(4) Nutritive value

given, it is called “Passive immunity”.

Ans. (2)


122. Match the following columns and select the (3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia correct option. (4) Uremia and Ketonuria Column – I Column – II Ans. (2)

(a) Placenta (i) Androgens 128. Mathc the following columns and select the (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human chorionic correc option.

Gonadotropin

Column – I Column II

(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum

(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between

glands second and seventh

(d) Leydig cells (iv)Lubrication of the ribs

Penis

(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the

(a) (b) (c) (d) Humerus

(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do notconnect with

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) the sternum

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Ans. (3) (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

123. Ray florets have:

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) Superior ovary (2) Hypogynous ovary

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) Half inferior ovary (4) Inferior ovary

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Ans. (4)


124. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment? 

Ans. (3) 


(4) Primary sludge

Ans. (3) 130. If the headof cockroach is removed, it may live

for few days because: 125. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion

of: (1) the cockroach does not have nervous system

(1) trypsinogen into trypsin (2) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous

system while the rest is situated along the

(2) caseinogen into casein ventral part of its body.

(3) pepsinogen into pepsin

(3) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system

(4) protein into polypeptides

while the rest is situated along the dorsal

Ans. (1) part of its body.

126. Mathc the following columns and select the (4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the correct option. cockroach are situated in ventral part of Column – I Column II abdomen.

(a) Greagarious, (i) Asterias Ans. (2)

polyphagous pest 131. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)

(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion of organisms which have evolved due to changes symmetry and in environment brough about by anthropogenic larva with action?  bilateral symmetry (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.

(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.

(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) like dogs.

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (3) only (d) (4) only (a)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) Ans. (2)

Ans. (1) 132. Identify the basic amino acid from the following

127. Presence of which of the following conditions

(1) Glutamic Acid (2) Lysine

in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?

(3) Valine (4) Tyrosine

(1) Uremia and Renal Calculi

(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria Ans. (2)


129. How may true breeding pea plant verieties did

Mendel select as pairs, which were similar

(1) Floating debris except in one character with contrastine traits?

(2) Effluents of primary treatment

(1) 3 (2) 14 (3) 8 (4) 4

(3) ACtivated sludge

Ans. (2)


133. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments (3) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of can be visualized with the help of: shapes

(1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation (4) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon. (2) Acetocarmine in UV radiation Ans. (3)

(3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation 140. Urea reacts with water to form A which will

(4) Acetocarmine in bright blue light decompose to form B. B when passed through Ans. (1) Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.

What is the formula of C from the following? 134. The sequence that controls the copy number of

the linked DNA in the vector, is termed: (1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) Cu(OH)2

(3) CuCO

(1) Ori site 3 . Cu(OH)2 (4) CuSO4

Ans. (1)

(2) Palindromic sequence

141. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following

(3) Recogenition site reaction. (4) Selectable marker

Ans. (1) Sucrose +H O2 Glucose  Fructose

135. The roots that originate from the base of the If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2 × 1013 at stem are: Θ at the same

300 K, the value of  G

(1) Primary roots r

temperature will be :

(2) Prop roots –1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)

(1) 8.314 J mol

(3) Iateral roots –1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)

(2) 8.314 J mol

(4) Fibrous roots (3) –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)

Ans. (4) (4) –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)


136. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Ans. (4)

Cr2+ ion is : 142. Identify the incorrect match.

(1) 4.90 BM (2) 5.92 BM Name IUPAC Official Name

(3) 2.84 BM (4) 3.87 BM (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium

Ans. (1) (b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium

137. Match the following and identify the correct (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium

option. (d) Unununnium (iv)Darmstadtium

(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(HCO3)2 (1) (b), (ii) (2) (c), (iii)

(b) Temporary (ii) An electron deficient (3) (d), (iv) (4) (a), (i) hardness of hydride Ans. (3) water 143. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas (1) Alanine (2) Tyrosine

(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar structure (3) Lysine (4) Serine

(a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (3)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 144. What is the change in oxidation number of

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) carbon in the following reaction?

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) CH4 g  4Cl2 g CCl4 l 4HCl g 

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (1) 0 to +4 (2) –4 to +4

Ans. (4) (3) 0 to –4 (4) +4 to +4

138. The mixture which shows positive deviation Ans. (2)

from Raoult’s law is : 145. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives : (1) Benzene + Toluene (1) -D-Glucose + -D-Glucose

(2) Acetone + Chloroform (2) -D-Glucose + -D-Fructose

(3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane (3) -D-Fructose + -D-Fructose

(4) Ethanol + Acetone (4) -D-Glucose + -D-Fructose

Ans. (4) Ans. (2)

139. Identify the correct from the following : 146. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce

(1) Blister copper has blistered appearance due 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass to evolution of CO2. of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is :

(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

Nickel by Van Arkel method. Ans. (4)

 

147. For the reaction, 2Cl(g)  Cl2(g), the correct option is :

(1) rH > 0 and rS < 0 (2) rH < 0 and rS > 0 (3) rH < 0 and rS < 0

(4) rH > 0 and rS > 0

Ans. (3)

148. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

(1) Copper (2) Calcium

(3) Potassium (4) Iron

Ans. (3)

149. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.

(2) Interstittial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.

(3) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24 and Cr O2 72 are not the same.

(4) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+(d6) in water.

Ans. (3)

150. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in :

(1) heat of reaction

(2) threshold enery

(3) collision frequency

(4) activation energy

Ans. (1,3)

151. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :

(1) Cannizzaro’s reaction

(2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction

(3) Cross Aldol condensation

(4) Aldol condensation

Ans. (3)

152. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?

(1) + R effect of – CH3 groups

(2) – R effect of – CH3 groups

(3) Hyperconjugation

(4) –I effect of –CH3 groups

Ans. (3)

153. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10–15.

(1) 2 × 10–8 M (2) 1 × 10–13 M

(3) 1 × 108 M (4) 2 × 10–13 M

Ans. (4)

154. Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1) Li2 (2) C2 (3) O2 (4) He2

Ans. (4)

155. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is : (a) -Elimination reaction

(b) Follows Zaitsev rule

(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

(d) Dehydration reaction

(1) (a), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d) (4) (a), (b), (c)

Ans. (4)

156. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?

(1) Solubility

(2) Stability of the colloidal particles

(3) Size of the colloidal particles

(4) Viscosity

Ans. (2)

157. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 17571 Lu, respectively, are :

(1) 104, 71 and 71 (2) 71, 71 and 104

(3) 175, 104 and 71 (4) 71, 104 and 71 Ans. (4)

158. Identify the correct statements from the following :

(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food

(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings

(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline. (d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.

(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only Ans. (3)

159. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is :

2 288pm

(1) 288pm (2)

4

(3) 288pm (4) 3288pm

4

Ans. (4)

160. Paper chromatography is an example of :

(1) Partition chromatogrphy

(2) Thin layer chromatography (3) Column chromatography

(4) Adsorption chromatography

Ans. (1)

 

f

Ans. (2)

Ans. (2)

Ans. (2)

Ans. (1)

Ans. (2)

Ans. (2)

 

173. Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?

(1) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene

(2) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

(3) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

(4) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4dichlorobenzene

Ans. (3)


174. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?

(1) Only NaCl

(2) Only MgCl2

(3) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2

(4) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2

Ans. (1)

175. Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?

(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.

(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.

(3) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.

(4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.

Ans. (2)

176. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :

I OH

(1) + CH3OH (2) + C2H5I

I OH

(3) + C2H5OH (4) + CH3I

Ans. (4)

177. Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?

NHCH3 N(CH3)2



Ans. (4)


178. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give : (1) Sec. butyl alcohol

(2) Tert. butyl alcohol

(3) Isobutyl alcohol

(4) Isopropyl alcohol

Ans. (2)


179. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be :

(1) Oxygen gas (2) H2S gas

(3) SO2 gas (4) Hydrogen gas

Ans. (1)


180. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

(1) Sodium stearate

(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

(4) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Ans. (2)

 

 


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